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MBBS, Licensing and postgraduate MD/MS Entrance Examination practice questions: 10 MCQs from Psychiatry with full explan...
16/06/2026

MBBS, Licensing and postgraduate MD/MS Entrance Examination practice questions: 10 MCQs from Psychiatry with full explanations:

1. Mania with psychotic features is characteristic of which disorder?
a. Bipolar disorder type I
b. Depression
c. Anxiety
d. OCD

Explanation:
Bipolar I involves manic episodes, sometimes with psychosis (delusions/hallucinations).
Bipolar I: At least one manic episode, may be preceded or followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes.
Bipolar II: At least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode, no full manic episodes.
(b) Depression may have psychotic features but not manic episodes.
(c) Anxiety disorders do not produce mania.
(d) OCD is primarily characterized by obsessions and compulsions, not mania.

Correct Answer: (a)

2. In dementia, the earliest cognitive deficit is typically:
a. Motor skills
b. Memory
c. Vision
d. Hearing

Explanation:
Particularly recent memory loss; hallmark of early dementia. Dementia, especially Alzheimer’s disease, usually starts with episodic memory impairment. Patients first forget recent events, appointments, or conversations.
(a) Motor skills – Usually preserved early; affected in Parkinsonian dementias later.
(c) Vision – Often preserved; cortical visual loss is late.
(d) Hearing – Not directly affected by dementia; may worsen due to age.

Correct Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is NOT ag first-generation typical antipsychotic?
a. Haloperidol
b. Risperidone
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Fluphenazine

Explanation:
Risperidone is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic.
(a) Haloperidol: Typical antipsychotic.
(c) Chlorpromazine: First-generation antipsychotic.
(d) Fluphenazine: First-generation antipsychotic.

Correct Answer: (b)

4. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (hyperthermia and rigidity) is most often caused by:
a. Diazepam
b. Haloperidol
c. Lithium
d. Amitriptyline

Explanation:
Potent dopamine antagonists like haloperidol can trigger NMS. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening idiosyncratic reaction primarily caused by dopamine-receptor antagonist medications (antipsychotics/neuroleptics). Haloperidol, a high-potency first-generation (typical) antipsychotic, is the most frequently implicated drug. Approximately half of all reported NMS cases are associated with its use, likely due to its high affinity for D2 dopamine receptors.
(a) Diazepam: Muscle relaxant; does not cause NMS.
(c) Lithium: Can cause tremor but not NMS.
(d) Amitriptyline: Tricyclic antidepressant; NMS is rare.

Correct Answer: (b)

5. Conversion disorder is primarily associated with which psychological mechanism?
a. Malingering
b. Primary gain
c. Delusions
d. Hallucinations

Explanation:
In conversion disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder), primary gain is fundamentally present, while secondary gain may also be present but is not required for diagnosis. Primary gain involves unconscious psychological conflict being converted into physical symptoms to reduce anxiety, while secondary gain refers to external benefits (e.g., attention, avoiding responsibility)

(a) Malingering is conscious feigning for external benefit.
(c) Delusions are fixed false beliefs seen in psychosis.
(d) Hallucinations are perceptual disturbances, not part of conversion disorder.

Correct Answer: (b)

6. A young adult presents with unstable relationships, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and recurrent self-harming tendencies. Which personality disorder is most likely?
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Avoidant personality disorder

Explanation:
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by emotional instability, impulsivity, intense and unstable interpersonal relationships, fear of abandonment, identity disturbance, and recurrent self-harm or suicidal behavior. Patients often show rapid mood shifts and chronic feelings of emptiness.

(a) Antisocial personality disorder: Marked by disregard for others’ rights and lack of remorse rather than emotional instability.
(c) Narcissistic personality disorder: Characterized by grandiosity and need for admiration, not fear of abandonment.
(d) Avoidant personality disorder: Social inhibition and hypersensitivity to criticism without impulsivity or unstable relationships.

Correct Answer: (b)

7. A patient exaggerates symptoms intentionally to obtain financial compensation after a workplace injury. Which condition best describes this behavior?
a. Factitious disorder
b. Malingering
c. Somatic symptom disorder
d. Conversion disorder

Explanation:
Malingering refers to the intentional production or exaggeration of symptoms for external gain, such as financial compensation, avoiding work, legal benefits, or obtaining drugs. The key feature is clear external incentive.

(a) Factitious disorder: Symptoms are intentionally produced but without external reward; motivation is to assume the sick role.
(c) Somatic symptom disorder: Symptoms are not intentionally produced; patient genuinely believes they are ill.
(d) Conversion disorder: Neurological symptoms occur unconsciously without intentional fabrication.

Correct Answer: (b)

8. La-belle-indifférence is classically seen in:
a. Dissociative disorder b. Mania
c. Depression
d.Schizophrenia

Explanation:
La-belle-indifférence refers to a phenomenon where a patient with a severe medical condition, such as a conversion disorder, appears unconcerned or indifferent to their symptoms. This lack of distress in response to a serious illness is classically seen in dissociative disorders, where the person may present with motor or sensory symptoms that are not neurologically explainable but is remarkably calm or indifferent to their condition.

(b) Mania is associated with elevated mood, increased energy, and impulsivity. Indifference to symptoms does not typically characterize mania.

(c) Depression generally involves sadness, hopelessness, and distress about one's symptoms, so la-belle-indifférence would not be expected in this condition.

(d) Schizophrenia involves psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, but la-belle-indifférence is not a common feature.

Correct Answer: (a)

9. The most specific feature of Schrizophrenia is considered to be
a. Incoherence
b. Neologism
c. Perseverance
d. Pressure of speech

Explanation:
The most specific feature of Schrizophrenia is neologism-the creation of new words or phrases that have no meaning to others. This is often seen in schizophrenia and other severe psychiatric disorders. Neologisms are a direct manifestation of thought disorder and are highly indicative of psychotic states.

(a) Incoherence refers to a disorganized thought process, but it is more general and can be seen in various psychiatric conditions, not just psychosis.

(c) Perseverance is the repetition of the same response despite a change in the stimulus. While it may be seen in psychosis, it is not as specific as neologism.

(d) Pressure of speech, which involves rapid and excessive talking, is a common feature in mania and other conditions, but it is not specific to psychosis.

Correct Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following is the point that differentiates psychosis from neurosis?
a. Severity
b. Clinical features
c. Insight
d. Duration

Explanation:
The primary difference between psychosis and neurosis is the insight of the patient. Psychosis is characterized by a significant loss of insight, where the individual is unable to recognize that their thoughts, perceptions, or behaviors are distorted or irrational (e.g., delusions or hallucinations). In contrast, individuals with neurosis typically maintain awareness of their condition and are more likely to seek help.

(a) Severity refers to the intensity of symptoms but is not the primary distinguishing factor between psychosis and neurosis. Both can vary in severity.

(b) Clinical features of psychosis (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) and neurosis (e.g., anxiety, phobias) may overlap, but the key difference is insight, not just clinical features.

(d) Duration is not a clear differentiating factor, as both psychotic and neurotic symptoms can be chronic or episodic.

Correct Answer: (c)

16/06/2026

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A 38-year-old woman presents with recurrent postprandial right upper quadrant pain. Current pain has lasted 5 hours. Tem...
15/06/2026

A 38-year-old woman presents with recurrent postprandial right upper quadrant pain. Current pain has lasted 5 hours. Temperature is 37.2°C, WBC count is borderline. Ultrasound shows gallstones, a positive sonographic Murphy sign, gallbladder wall thickness of 2 mm. Which finding is most suggestive of biliary colic rather than acute cholecystitis?
a. Positive sonographic Murphy sign
b. Gallstones within the gallbladder
c. Normal gallbladder wall thickness
d. Right upper quadrant pain after a fatty meal

Explanation:
Biliary colic results from transient cystic duct obstruction without gallbladder inflammation. Imaging typically lacks inflammatory changes such as wall thickening, edema, hyperemia, and pericholecystic fluid.

Correct Answer is (c)

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